7:33 AM, 17th February 2014, About 7 years ago 11
I would like to ask why lenders require buy to let landlords to have a 25% deposit whereas residential borrowers only 10%?
I would assume, if both a BTL landlord and residential purchaser defaulted, it would be more risky for a bank to get back their funds [loan] via from a residential purchaser as it would have a higher LTV.
So what is the reasoning for this?
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