10:06 AM, 3rd December 2014, About 8 years ago 3
An individual buys one property, tidies it up and lets it. Then, after only about a year decides they need to sell the property.
The property has increased in value, lets say +40%, mostly due to the work done to prepare it for letting. Would HMRC be satisfied that it was simply a change of plan, or would they be likely to pursue the individual as having traded the property – requiring tax at less favourable rates than selling an investment property?
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