10:11 AM, 30th October 2020, About 12 months ago 5
I served a notice on 16th October to terminate my tenancy, according to a 2-months break clause in my contract, expecting to pay only 2 month’s rent till I vacate the property on 15th December.
However, the letting agent has got back to me saying the break clause falls within the statuary law which means the notice must be served in line with the rent due date (1st of each month). Therefore, he claims I am liable to pay rent for an additional 15 days till the end of December.
Now, I believe the agent is not right, trying to overcharge me.
I am a landlord myself and dealt with a fair number of letting agents and tenants over the past 10 years. To my experience, the break clause notice period starts exactly on the day it is served, unless specifically defined otherwise in the contract (which is not the case for me now).
Here is my question: is the letting agent right? If not, on what ground could I challenge his position?
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