12:32 PM, 8th May 2014, About 8 years ago 5
I have recently separated from my husband and moved back into a house I owned before our marriage …. this is where I believe my nightmare begins!
We own two properties, one has been the matrimonial home for 20 years ( jointly owned) the other I have owned for 32 years ( husband is on title deeds) I paid £32k for it in 1982, lived in it for 10 years then rented it out from when I married until last month, it is now worth about £500k. If I were to sell it in the future, would I be liable to CGT and how much as it would be my PPR?
My husband will remain in the Matrimonial home.
Any thoughts or comments on this unsettling situation would be welcome .
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