9:00 AM, 10th March 2016, About 5 years ago 3
If a property is bought (as a family home) with a buy to let mortgage, and has always been more than 40% occupied as a dwelling by the borrower and their relatives. Does the mortgage contract then become regulated? I have checked the FCA handbook and PERG section 4.1 seems to confirm the above (the 40% threshold). But I would like to know if this gives the protection of a regulated mortgage and safeguards a property from being forcibly sold at auction by a mortgage lender?
Any advice would be much appreciated.
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