Councils using ‘Intelligence’ to track down low EPC properties and fine £5,00015:08 PM, 29th March 2021
About 2 weeks ago 36
If a property is bought (as a family home) with a buy to let mortgage, and has always been more than 40% occupied as a dwelling by the borrower and their relatives. Does the mortgage contract then become regulated? I have checked the FCA handbook and PERG section 4.1 seems to confirm the above (the 40% threshold). But I would like to know if this gives the protection of a regulated mortgage and safeguards a property from being forcibly sold at auction by a mortgage lender?
Any advice would be much appreciated.
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