7:09 AM, 11th February 2022, About 3 months ago 4
Hi, I have a young member of staff who purchased a flat in a housing association block of flats. He did not realise that when purchased, he could not sublet.
Has tried to sell his flat and the purchaser wants the right to sublet!
The other flats are all the housing association’s tenants! It seems unfair that being the only owner-occupier that the flat cannot be sublet?
I am aware that there are flats that are clearly only owner-occupiers, and I get that. However, the Housing Association has made it impossible for him to communicate with anyone due to various problems. Unable to have a meeting, etc.
Finally, their solicitor communicated with him and asked for a fee of £350 which they took and then told him that they had the advice to continue with this clause!!!
I am mystified and wonder whether there is anyone who can advise as to course of action?
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