My tenant signed a new AST in 2003 with me as new landlord as they had a previous agreement with my father since 1994.
Although they signed the new assured tenancy agreement in 2003 with myself as Landlord I instructed them to still pay the rent to my father as they had done previously.
At the end of 2007 I requested tenant to start paying the rent to me as my father went into a home.
Was the 2003 AST valid as I was named Landlord on the agreement but rent was still paid to my father as it had been in their old tenancy agreement?
Did I only become Landlord when they started paying the rent directly to me?
Also their deposit was never placed into a scheme as they initially moved in 1993 and then signed new AST in 2003 but as they started paying rent to me in 2007 was I supposed to place deposit in government scheme then.
Any advice would be gratefully appreciated.