Tenancy agreement now void or is it?

WILL POST IN ON HERE FOR YOU ALL WHEN AND IF I GET IT SORTED.

Reply to the comment left by “ashley peters” at “12/05/2016 – 15:15“:

Hi Ashley
The following comments are provisional as I have not seen the documents. However, I think you are getting yourself confused.

The tenancy is not “void” because the agent company was dissolved, even if the agent signed the tenancy. This is because the act of the agent is the act of the landlord. If the agent existed when the tenancy was signed by it the tenancy does not become void later because the agent is dissolved.

Your write:”i have all the forged tenancy agreement original contract of sale which is void
the new landlord who is registered on land registry is not the landlord we signed sale for”

You are assuming something you are trying to prove: that the tenancy (or perhaps now a sale contract) is void. This is a well known fallacy of “begging the question”. Also why do you say the tenancy was forged?
The fact that the registered proprietor at the Land Registry is not the person you signed with is irrelevant. You say “but instead of receiving special conditions we find out that the company we supposed to have sold to passed the sale agreement to someone else without my knowledge”. All this means is that the reversion to your tenancy was passed to someone else. If you are not given notice of it you are entitled to (and indeed should) keep paying rent to the original landlord. Only when you receive notice of the sale will you be obliged to pay the new landlord.
What exactly has happened to the rent you paid is an interesting question but if you think you are going to recover three years’ rent, forget it.

The landlord may be confused as well and you can probably spin things out a bit if you receive a s8 or s21 notice. Getting to the bottom of the matter would require a detailed analysis of the documents and unless you know a friendly lawyer who will do it pro bono (or for a couple of bottles of decent claret – 2009 was a good year!) I suspect it will be uneconomic. You could ask the CAB or Shelter but it looks as if you have a right b*****s muddle. Good luck but I think you may have to move in the next few months.

You write “i only owed two months rent which i was led to believe was covered by what was owed from the company”

From this I infer that the S8 notice is on rent arrears.

If you have evidence that all rent has been paid to the accounts advised by the landlord, then (I believe) you have a defence.

I also believe that if you reduce the arrears to less than 2 months, then you have a defence.

friends tenancy agreement is signed on back by owner/landlord dated 5th september front sheet is just the name of the agent
agent has now produced an agreement by deed between him and owner/landlord dated 5th september
so who is his landlord and who has to start app

also can there be two different tenanciy agreements one is ast the other is agreement by deed
VERY CONFUSING
CAN SOMEONE PLEASE EXPLAIN THIS TO ME MANY THANKS

Hi Ashley, so three months on and you are still asking questions on the same issue! Assuming you were served a section 8 / 21 in or before March you are now past the notice period. Do you have a court order against you for possession of the property? In the last three month’s have you sought legal advice? What is your current position??

Reply to the comment left by “Rob Crawford” at “17/08/2016 – 11:38“:

2 X S21’S SERVED DIFFERENT SURNAME TO THE ONE ON TENANCY AGREEMENT SAME WITH S8 SERVED DIFFERENT SURNAME DOES THIS MAKE NOTICES INVALID

ALSO EXPERIENCED LANDLORD DOESN’T SEEM TO KNOW WHAT HE IS DOING ALSO VERY EXPENSIVE MISTAKES DON’T YOU THINK