10:20 AM, 16th February 2014, About 10 years ago 2
I inherited a freehold building with two flats when my mother died. I wanted to draw finance from one of the flats for a deposit on another property. In order to do this I was told by my financial adviser to convert to leasehold. I asked my solicitor to do this for me with me being the freeholder and my husband the leaseholder, and a mortgage was obtained in my name. My solicitor though has made me the leaseholder and my husband the freeholder and his name is on the land registry title deeds. I told my solicitor the mortgage is in my name and he says this is ok. Is he right. Who now owns the property, me or my husband.
I am confused.
Can anybody help me to understand this please?
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