9:23 AM, 7th February 2020, About 4 years ago 3
Hi, I am after a bit of advice. I purchased a Buy to Let property in 1998 for £14550 on a mortgage in my name only. I married in 1999 and we then went on to buy a couple more BTLs.
We divorced in 2008 when I had to remortgage this particular flat along with another and family home to pay off my husband.
That flat at that time was valued at £110k and he was paid off half that equity.
I am now in a position of wanting to sell.
Am I still liable for the CGT of £110k – £14.55k (min allowance and expensive etc) or is the cost at the market value at the point of divorce/transfers of equity?
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