4 months ago | 54 comments
Hi, I’ve just read through the details again…
If you evict a tenant post 1st May using ground 1 as a family member needs to move in, but then they find work elsewhere, for example, then move out, as it stands you still cant relet if this is within the banned period.
I wondered if in this case you could then lease the property to the council for temp accommodation instead.
Is the ban on ANY rental of the property by anyone at all carte blanche, or is it more specifically based on the type/category of let going forward and/or if it falls under the RRA remit or not? I can’t find the detail I am looking for.
1. If the lease to the council is not a let covered under the RRA going forward, for example, would the 12 month letting ban still apply?
2. If the penalties of a breach of the 12 month reletting ban are down to the councils to enforce and prosecute, would they themselves be able to issue a full exemption/statutory excuse from any breach if they agreed to take your property on within the 12 months (because they desperately need temp accommodation)?
Are we really looking at a situation where a LL is banned from even being able to offer up an empty property to the council to enable them to fulfil their own statutory housing obligations?
Thank you,
Reluctant Landlord
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Member Since September 2018 - Comments: 3508 - Articles: 5
10:44 AM, 9th April 2026, About 4 hours ago
Reply to the comment left by Simon F at 08/04/2026 – 19:20
so of you don’t market the property, you can relet it? Interesting.
Member Since October 2020 - Comments: 198
11:31 AM, 9th April 2026, About 4 hours ago
Reply to the comment left by Reluctant Landlord at 09/04/2026 – 10:43
That may have been the motivation for the restriction, but the wording of the legislation is not that narrow.
Member Since October 2020 - Comments: 1137
11:55 AM, 9th April 2026, About 3 hours ago
Reply to the comment left by Simon F at 19:20
S13(2) of the RRA also makes clear that the prohibition applies to re-letting, not just re-marketing.