19:07 PM, 13th April 2017, About 5 years ago 16
I have a buy-to-let property that has been in my husband’s name since we purchased the property.
It has never been my main residence.
The asset was transferred to me in 2014 and is now solely in my name.
If I were to sell this property, would I pay CGT from the date it was transferred into my name in 2014?
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