What Does “Washing Out CGT On Incorporation” Actually Mean?

What Does “Washing Out CGT On Incorporation” Actually Mean?

9:11 AM, 13th June 2018, About 6 years ago 25

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A common question I am asked by landlords who are considering incorporation of their property rental business is “what does washing out Capital Gains Tax (CGT) on incorporation actually mean?”.

I will explain this first using an analogy, which will make a lot more sense when I then relate it back to the question.

Imagine you have just cleaned a muddy floor with a white towel. The towel isn’t white any more is it? This is because the mud has been transferred from the floor onto the towel. The floor might well be clear of mud but the towel isn’t is it? The mud still exists, it has merely been transferred.

Now imagine washing the towel in a bucket of water. You can wash the mud out of the towel but it remains in the water doesn’t it?

In both scenarios there is no less mud after the transition than there was before. You have simply moved the unwanted mud from an inconvenient position to a more convenient position for you.

In this analogy the mud represents the capital gains on which CGT is ordinarily payable. The towel represents shares in your new company and the bucket of water might represent your long term exit strategy.

When a property rental business is transferred into a company it is treated as a sale, which triggers capital gains. However, a piece of legislation called TCGA92/S162 enables business owners to exchange equity in their business for shares and to offset the value of the shares created (the value of the equity in the business) against the capital gain resulting from the sale of the business, to reduce or even eliminate the payment of CGT at this point by deferring it. Effectively, the capital gains have been transferred from the properties into the shares in the company, much like the mud being transferred from the floor to the towel, or the towel into the bucket of water.

Imagine a scenario where a property was originally purchased for £100,000 but transferred to a company for £200,000. If that property was sold for £200,000 the following day, the company would have made no profit, hence there would be no capital gains. This is because the £100,000 of capital gain has been washed out of the property and into the company shares. Therefore, the CGT is deferred until the shares (not the properties) are disposed of.

However, there are two scenario’s at least where CGT would not fall due on disposal of the company shares. These are:-

  1. If the owner of the shares dies before they are transferred – rather an extreme way to avoid paying tax though!
  2. The second second is if the shares in the company are sold to a REIT. This is the equivalent to my analogy of washing the towel in the bucket of water.

The above often leads to another question; “what are latent gains?”

Latent gains occur when equity in your business is less that your capital gains. Capital gains are current value minus acquisition costs. Equity is current value minus liabilities. If a latent gain exists, it is because you have insufficient equity to convert into shares in order to offset all of your capital gains at the point of incorporation. Accordingly, CGT remains payable on the element of latent gains. There are only a few ways to avoid this problem. The first is to move abroad and become non-resident, in which case your acquisition costs are deemed to be the value of your business as of April 2015. The others are to reduce your debt, or to add assets to the business, so that your equity is the same level as your capital gains.

Our main “Tax Planning” page has several case studies based on the above scenario’s, the three most popular of which are linked below.

How Angie and Dan Could Have Saved £280,000

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For expert assistance in regards to reviewing the tax planning opportunities for your own rental property business, please complete the form below.

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Comments

David Hope

17:28 PM, 27th September 2018, About 6 years ago

Are Leasehold properties able to be included in BICT arrangements ?

Mark Alexander - Founder of Property118

17:30 PM, 27th September 2018, About 6 years ago

Reply to the comment left by David Hope at 27/09/2018 - 17:28
Yes they are

David Hope

10:00 AM, 30th September 2018, About 6 years ago

If a partnership does not want to transfer all the assets, houses, at incorporation can TCGA 1992, S165 be used alongside BICT. Are there any implications of this approach as to apposed to using TCGA 1992, S162 ?

David Hope

11:35 AM, 30th September 2018, About 6 years ago

If already a Partnership, can you incorporate only some of the properties using TCGA 1992, S165 and BICT. I think this means that the newly formed company (trading) would then rent the properties (left outside the company), from the partnership (investment). The implication being 1.) that those properties left in the partnership would be taxed under partnership arrangements 2) those transferred would be taxed as a company under Corporation Tax. Is that correct or am I missing some other important implication of the approach ?

Mark Smith Head of Chambers Cotswold Barristers

10:45 AM, 1st October 2018, About 6 years ago

Dear David,

Thanks for this input.
S.165 is potentially available, but we have not advised its use for our clients. The main reason is that the properties would be on the company balance sheet at MV minus held-over gain, meaning that a sale from the company would attract Corporation Tax on the full value of the gain.

David Hope

11:20 AM, 1st October 2018, About 6 years ago

Thanks Mark - we have a family partnership, want to incorporate, but don't want to incorporate all the partnership properties, no really sure what we can do ?

David Hope

11:46 AM, 23rd November 2018, About 5 years ago

Have just read this -Some of the best BTL lenders post BICT incorporation

https://www.property118.com/best-btl-lenders-post-bict-incorporation/

For refinancing - does this mean there will be no SDLT to pay when legal ownership moves to the company ?

Mark Alexander - Founder of Property118

13:56 PM, 23rd November 2018, About 5 years ago

Reply to the comment left by David Hope at 23/11/2018 - 11:46
Yes it does, because the SDLT will already have been accounted for on completion of the Business Sale Agreement.

David Hope

14:44 PM, 23rd November 2018, About 5 years ago

Thanks Mark once again 🙂

David Hope

17:18 PM, 19th December 2018, About 5 years ago

Hi Mark - on completion of the BICT process, I understand legal ownership remains the same and the Beneficial Interest Owner is the company. Pre BICT, if the only properties the investor had were BTL properties, does that mean, post BICT that the property they purchase as a residential (home) is regarded as their principal private residence and not regarded as a second property and therefore not liable for the higher second property SDLT rates ?

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